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  <front>
    <journal-meta>
      <journal-title-group>
        <journal-title>Latin Meeting in Analytic Philosophy Genova</journal-title>
      </journal-title-group>
      <issn pub-type="ppub">1613-0073</issn>
    </journal-meta>
    <article-meta>
      <title-group>
        <article-title>The Case for Infallibilism</article-title>
      </title-group>
      <contrib-group>
        <contrib contrib-type="author">
          <string-name>Julien Dutant</string-name>
          <email>julien.dutant@lettres.unige.ch</email>
          <xref ref-type="aff" rid="aff0">0</xref>
        </contrib>
        <aff id="aff0">
          <label>0</label>
          <institution>University of Geneva</institution>
          ,
          <addr-line>Switzerland:</addr-line>
        </aff>
      </contrib-group>
      <pub-date>
        <year>2007</year>
      </pub-date>
      <volume>2</volume>
      <fpage>0</fpage>
      <lpage>22</lpage>
      <abstract>
        <p>Infallibilism is the claim that knowledge requires that one satisfies some infallibility condition. I spell out three distinct such conditions: epistemic, evidential and modal infallibility. Epistemic infallibility turns out to be simply a consequence of epistemic closure, and is not infallibilist in any relevant sense. Evidential infallibilism i s unwarranted but it is not an satisfactory characterization of the infallibilist intuition. Modal infallibility, by contrast, captures the core infallibilist intuition, and I argue that i t is required to solve the Gettier problem and account for lottery cases. Finally, I discuss whether modal infallibilism has sceptical consequences and argue that it is an open question whose answer depends on one's account of alethic possibility. 1 Reed (2002: 143). Similar statements are made by Cohen (1988: 91), Siegel (1997: 164), Brueckner (2005: 384), and Dougherty and Rysiew (forthcoming). 2 D. and F. Howard-Synder and Feit (2003). 3 Lehrer (1990: 47) uses “fallibilism” in that way.</p>
      </abstract>
    </article-meta>
  </front>
  <body>
    <sec id="sec-1">
      <title>1 Introduction</title>
      <p>Infallibilism is the claim that knowledge requires that one satisfies some infallibility
condition. Although the term and its opposite, “fallibilism”, are often used in the
epistemology literature, they are rarely carefully defined. In fact, they have received
such a variety of meanings that one finds such contradictory statements as the
following:
“Fallibilism is virtually endorsed by all epistemologists”1
“Epistemologists whose substantive theories of warrant differ dramatically seem to
believe that the Gettier Problem can be solved only if a belief cannot be at once
warranted and false, which is [infallibilism]. Such is the standard view.”2
Faced with such statements, one is tempted to dismiss any discussion about
infallibilism as a merely terminological dispute. However, I will argue here that there is a
non-trivial infallibility condition that best captures the core infallibilist intuition, and
that knowledge is subject to such a condition. Thus some substantial version of
infallibilism is right. But it should be noted that that is compatible with “fallibilism”
being true under some definitions of the term, for instance if “fallibilism” is
understood as the (almost trivial) thesis that it is logically possible that most of our beliefs
are false.3</p>
      <p>Infallibilism is often rejected from the start because it is thought to lead to
scepticism. For instance, Baron Reed says that:</p>
      <p>“Fallibilism is the philosophical view that conjoins two apparently obvious
claims. On one hand, we are fallible. We make mistakes – sometimes even about the
most evident things. But, on the other hand, we also have quite a bit of knowledge.
Despite our tendency to get things wrong occasionally, we get it right much more of
the time.”4</p>
      <p>Of course, infallibilism would straightforwardly lead to skepticism if it was the
claim that one has knowledge only if one has never had any false belief. But nobody
has ever defended such a strong infallibility condition. It must nevertheless be granted
that some skeptical arguments have been based on infallibility requirements.5 But as I
will argue here, the relation between infallibilism and skepticism is not
straightforward.</p>
      <p>I will discuss three notions of infallibilism that can be found in the literature. In
section 2, I will define epistemic infallibilism and show that it is just a consequence
of closure, that it is neutral with respect to scepticism, and that it should not be
called “infallibilism” at all. In section 3. I will define evidential infallibilism and
agree with most contemporary epistemologists that it straightforwardly leads to
scepticism and that it should be rejected; however, I will argue that it fails to provide a
satisfactory account of the infallibilist intuition. In section 4. I will define modal
infallibilism, and argue that it captures the core infallibilist intuition, that it should
be accepted in order to solve the Gettier problem and to account for our ignorance in
lottery cases, and that whether it leads to scepticism depends on further non-trivial
issues about the metaphysics of possibility and the semantics of modals. I conclude
by saying that modal infallibilism might turn out to warrant scepticism, but that it is
an open question whether it does so, and that at any rate we will have to live with it.
2</p>
    </sec>
    <sec id="sec-2">
      <title>Epistemic infallibilism and epistemic closure</title>
      <sec id="sec-2-1">
        <title>2.1 Certainty and ruling out possibilities of error</title>
        <p>The basic task of epistemology is to say what knowledge requires above true belief.
True belief is clearly insufficient for knowledge: if one guesses rightly whether a
flipped coin will land on heads, one does not thereby know that it will land on
heads.6</p>
        <p>
          Descartes famously argued that knowledge required absolute certainty:
“my reason convinces me that I ought not the less carefully to withhold belief
from what is not entirely certain and indubitable, than from what is manifestly false”7
4 Reed (2002: 143).
5 See sections 2.4, 3.3 and 4.4 below.
6
          <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref39">Sartwell (1992)</xref>
          argues that knowledge is just true belief, but I will leave that discussion
aside.
7 (Med. First Phil. I) Here Descartes only claims that rational belief requires certainty, but
it is clear from the rest of the Meditations that Descartes takes it to be a condition o n
knowledge.
        </p>
        <p>Several philosophers have followed Descartes in claiming that certainty was a
condition on knowledge.8 Unger has defended the certainty requirement on the basis of
the infelicity on such claims as (1):
(1) He really knows that it was raining, but he isn’t certain of it9</p>
        <p>Now the certainty requirement is often taken for a requirement for infallibility.10
However, that is far from obvious. For instance, Unger construes “certainty” as
maximal confidence.11 If certainty means that one has no doubts and is maximally
confident about the truth of some proposition, then certainty is compatible with one’s
having a false belief, which is a case of fallibility on all accounts. But it is also clear
that psychological certainty is not going to help with the account of knowledge: a
perfectly confident lucky guess that the coin will land on heads is not knowledge
either. Thus a more objective or normative notion of certainty is generally assumed,
such as being legitimately free from doubt. Descartes had probably such a notion in
mind. One way to cash out that requirement has been suggested by Pritchard: 12
Ruling-out. One knows that p only if one is able to rule out all possibilities
of error associated with p.
(RO)</p>
        <p>The thought goes as follows: if one is not able to rule out a given error
possibility, then for all one knows, that possibility might obtain. Thus it would be
legitimate for one to doubt whether one is free from error. Therefore one cannot
legitimately be certain.</p>
        <p>The (RO) requirement is intuitive. Suppose Bob has sighted Ann in the library,
but Ann has a twin that Bob cannot distinguish from her. If Bob had sighted Ann’s
twin, he would not have noticed any difference. Intuitively, if he has no further
evidence to rule out the possibility that he saw Ann’s twin, he does not know that Ann
is in the library, even if that is in fact true. The intuition can be defended by an
appeal to considerations of luck: if Bob’s epistemic position is compatible with either
Ann being there or her not being there, then it is a matter of luck whether his belief
that she is there is right. And that kind of luck prevents knowledge.13 The situation is
analogous to one’s flipping a coin and Bob luckily guessing which side the coin
landed on.</p>
        <p>Moreover, the (ruling-out) requirement is naturally understood as an infallibility
condition. Lewis defended it as such:</p>
        <p>
          “It seems as if knowledge must be by definition infallible. It you claim that S
knows that p, and yet you grant that S cannot eliminate a certain possibility in which
not-p, it certainly seems as if you have granted that S does not after all know that p.
To speak of fallible knowledge, of knowledge despite uneliminated possiblities of
error, just sounds contradictory.”14
8 Notably G.E.
          <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref32">Moore (1959)</xref>
          .
9
          <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref45">Unger (1971</xref>
          : 216, italics in the original). Unger argues that the modifier “really” and the
stress on "knows" prevent loose use of the verb, thereby allowing us to realize that
assertions like (1) are contradictory.
10 See e.g.
          <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref36">Pritchard (2005</xref>
          : 18-21).
11 Unger (1974: 217).
12
          <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref36">Pritchard (2005</xref>
          :17).
13 See
          <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref36">Pritchard (2005</xref>
          : 17-18).
14 Lewis (1996: 549).
        </p>
      </sec>
      <sec id="sec-2-2">
        <title>2.2 The epistemic construal of ruling out possibilities of error</title>
        <p>It is unclear what the (Ruling-out) requirement amounts to, as long as we are not clear
about what “to rule out” and “possibilities of error” mean. There are two definitions
of “possiblities of error”:
W is a possibility of error for S with respect to p iff: if W obtained, p would
be false.</p>
        <p>W is a possibility of error for S with respect to p iff: if W obtained, S would
not know whether p.</p>
        <p>Possibilities of error (Ws) are sets of possible worlds. The conditional “if W
obtained, p would be false” is meant to be a strict implication: for any world w in W, p
is false in w . By contrast, the objects of knowledge (ps) are not construed as set of
worlds but as sentence-like propositions. For instance, one may know that (p)
Hespherus shines while ignoring that (q) Phosphorus shines. Yet if Hesperus is
Phosphorus, and identity is necessary, the sets of worlds in which Hespherus shines
is just the set of worlds in which Phosphorus shines. (A similar problem arises with
any pair of true logical or mathematical propositions.) To allow one to know that
Hespherus shines while ignoring that Phosphorus does, I take the objects of
knowledge to be sentence-like objects associated with a set of worlds as their
truthcondition.</p>
        <p>Two remarks. First, assuming that knowledge entails truth, any possibility of error
in the sense of (PE) is also a possibility of error in the sense of (PE2). (PE2) adds
further possibilities of error: those in which p is true but not believed, or not known
for some other reason, and those in which p is false but it is not known that not-p.
Thus the infallibility condition built with (PE2) is strictly stronger than one built
with (PE). Second, (PE) implies that there is no possibility of error associated to
beliefs in necessarily true propositions. That would wrongly classify a lucky guess
that a five-digit number is prime as an infallible belief.15 An obvious fix would be to
include situations in which one has a different belief about whether p and that belief
is false:
w is a possibility of error for S with respect to p iff: if w obtained, S’s belief
about whether p would be false.
(PE’)</p>
        <p>For instance, the situation in which one wrongly believes that 2+2=5 would
count as a possibility of error with respect to one’s belief that 2+2=4. But to keep
things simple I will leave the case of necessary true propositions aside for the time
being. (We will return to it in section 4.1.)</p>
        <p>
          Now what does “ruling out” possibilities of error consist in? A common construal
is that one rules out an error possibility if and only if one knows it to be false: 16
(PE)
(PE2)
15 See
          <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref38">Reed (2002)</xref>
          .
16 See Dretkse (1981: 371): “In saying that [someone] is in a position to exclude these
possibilities I mean that his evidence or justification for thinking these alternatives are
not the case must be good enough to say that he knows they are not the case.” See also
          <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref36">Pritchard (2005</xref>
          : 25) and Stanley (2005: 130).
Epistemic Ruling Out. S rules out an error-possibility w iff S knows that
not-w.
        </p>
        <p>The formulation is problematic though, because the objects of knowledge are
propositions (individuated in a sentence-like manner) and not sets of worlds. Suppose
Bob knows that Hespherus shines but doesn’t know that Hespherus is Phosphorus.
Does Bob rule out a possibility w in which that planet does not shine? Depending on
how w is presented (as a dark-Hespherus versus a dark-Phosphorus situation), the
answer is different. So let us say that S weakly rules out a possibility w iff there is
some mode of presentation under which S knows that w does not obtain:
Weak epistemic ruling out. S rules out an error-possibility w iff: there is some
proposition m such that m is true iff w obtains, and S knows that not-m.</p>
        <p>Thus Bob weakly rules out the dark-Phosphorus situation, because that situation
obtains iff Hespherus does not shine, and Bob knows that Hespherus shines. In the
following, I will drop the mode-of-presentation qualification whenever it can be safely
ignored. So “S knows that not-w” should be understood as “there is some proposition
m such that m iff w, and S knows that not-m”.</p>
        <p>Now the definition implies that one is able to rule out w just if one is able to
know that not-w. But what does being able to know amounts to? The most natural
way to construe that idea is Williamson’s notion of being in a position to know:
“To be in a position to know p, it is neither necessary to know p nor sufficient to
be physically and psychologically able of knowing p. No obstacle must block one’s
path to knowing p. If one is in a position to know p, and one has done what one is in
a position to do to decide whether p is true, then one does know p.”17</p>
        <p>The characterization is somewhat vague but it will do for our present purposes.
Typically, if one is in a position to know p, then if one asked oneself whether p, one
would come to know that p. Thus one is able to rule out an error possibility iff: were
one to consider that possibility, one would know that it does not obtain.</p>
        <sec id="sec-2-2-1">
          <title>2.3 Epistemic infallibility is a consequence of epistemic closure</title>
          <p>With these epistemic definitions of ruling out in hand, we can state two infallibility
conditions, based on (PE) and (PE2), respectively:
Basic Epistemic Ruling Out. S knows that p only if S is in position to
know that every possibility w in which p is false does not obtain.</p>
          <p>Reflective Epistemic Ruling Out. S knows that p only if S is in position
to know that every possibility in which S does not know p does not
obtain.
(BERO)
(RERO)</p>
          <p>Let me first discuss (RERO). It should be pretty clear that (RERO) is roughly
equivalent to the well known KK principle according to which one knows only if one
is in position to know that one knows.18 Let W be the disjunction of possibilities in
which one does not know p. Then not-W implies that one knows that p . Given
(RERO), if one knows p, then for any w in W, one is in position to know that not-w.
Given some background assumptions, one is thereby in position to know that not-W,
and thereby in position to know that one knows p.19</p>
          <p>
            <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref8">Carrier’s (1993</xref>
            ) definition of infallibilism substantially amounts to (RERO).
Accordingly, he takes fallibilism to be the claim that one knows without being in
position to know that one knows. Now I agree that both (RERO) and (KK) are
unwarranted. It seems to me possible that one knows without knowing that one knows, and
at any rate that is not the kind of infallibilism I will be arguing for here. But as
Reed (2002: 148) argues, Carrier’s characterization of the fallibilism / infallibilism
debate relies on confusing orders of knowledge. Intuitively, in order to know that p,
one has to rule out the possibility that p is false. But ruling out the possibility that
one does not know p is what is required in order to know that one knows p.
Accordingly, (RERO) should be rejected, but it should not be taken as a characterization of
infallibilism.20
          </p>
          <p>Now let us turn to (BERO). (BERO) is in fact a consequence of another well-know
epistemic principle, namely epistemic closure, according to which if one knows that p
and is in position to know that p implies q, then one is in position to know that q.
That is easily shown. Suppose S knows p. Let w be any possibility in which p is
false. Then the proposition “w and not-p” is a mode of presentation of that
possibility. Assuming S knows basic (classical) logic, namely that p implies that it is not the
case that w and not-p, S is in position to know that if p, then “w and not-p” is false.
By epistemic closure, S is in position to know that “w and not p” is false. By the
definition of weakly ruling out, S is able to rule out “w and not p”. So (BERO) is
true.21</p>
          <p>
            Epistemic closure is extremely plausible. Suppose that one knows (2):
(2) There are two apples on the table
19 The background assumptions are: (a) if one knows for each w that it does not obtain,
then one knows that the disjunction of all w does not obtain. (a) assumes
multiplepremise closure, which has been rejected by some: see
            <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref21">Hawthorne (2004</xref>
            :46-50) for a
discussion of multiple-premise closure. (b) if one is in position to know that not-W,
where not-W implies that one knows p, then one is in position to know that one knows
that p. That assumes a rough version of epistemic closure (namely: if one knows that p
and p implies q then one is in position to know q) that might fail in various ways. For
instance, one might ignore that the possibilities one rules out are all the possibilities of
error. Thus one might fail to be in a position to know that not-W implies that S knows p.
So (RERO) does not quite entail (KK). The converse holds, though: if one knows that
one knows p, then there is a proposition which is true iff W (namely the proposition that
one does not know p), such that one knows that it is false. So one weakly rules out all
possibilities in which one does not know that p. That is why I say that the principles are
merely roughly equivalent.
20 Another way to see that Carrier’s definition of infallibilism is too strong is that i t
would classify as “fallible” someone whose beliefs are all true and could not have been
mistaken in any way, but who lacks second-order beliefs about whether she knows.
21 Given that, one might be surprised that
            <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref36">Pritchard (2005</xref>
            : 27) takes epistemic closure t o
be weaker that the epistemic infallibility condition. But that is due to the fact that the
present infallibility condition is slightly weaker than Pritchard’s, because it relies o n
“being in position to know” where Pritchard uses “know”, and on weak ruling out.
          </p>
          <p>And one knows that (2) entails (3):
(3) There is one apple on the table</p>
          <p>Given one knows (2), (2) is true. Given that (3) is a logical consequence of (2),
then it just cannot be the case that (3) is false. And one can very well know all of
this. If that is so, it is hard to see how one could fail to know that (3) is true. But
that is what the denial of closure would make possible.</p>
          <p>Dretske and Nozick have famously argued that epistemic closure fails.22 According
to Dretske, for instance, the following is possible:</p>
          <p>(4) Chris knows about some animal in a cage that it is a zebra, but he does not
know that it is not a cleverly painted mule.23</p>
          <p>Their rejection is based on well-motivated and powerful analyses of knowledge to
which I cannot do justice here. But as Hawthorne argues, rejecting closure has many
counter-intuitive consequences.24 For instance, it seems hard to reject the two
following closure principles:
Addition closure. If S knows p, then one is in position to know (p or q).
Equivalence closure. If S knows p, and if S is in position to know that p and
q are equivalent, then S is in position to know q.</p>
          <p>But as Hawthorne points out, that leads to the conclusion that Dretske and Nozick
want to avoid. Suppose Chris knows (5):
(5) That is a zebra.</p>
          <p>By (AC), Chris is in position to know (6):
(6) That is a zebra or that is a zebra which is not a painted mule.</p>
          <p>But (6) is equivalent to (7), and so by (EC) Chris is in position to know (7):
(7) It is not the case that that is not a zebra and that is not a zebra which is not a
painted mule.</p>
          <p>Thus Dretske and Nozick have to give up such intuitive principles as addition
closure and equivalence closure. Epistemic closure should be taken as a prima facie
constraint on accounts of knowledge that we should not drop unless some substantial
revision of our intuitive understanding of knowledge appears to be inevitable.</p>
          <p>Let us take stock. I have argued that the following version of infallibilism is
simply a consequence of epistemic closure:</p>
          <p>(BERO) S knows that p only if S is in position to know that every possibility w
in which p is false does not obtain.</p>
          <p>(BERO) S knows that p only if S is in position to know that every possibility w
in which p is false does not obtain.</p>
          <p>
            Call that epistemic infallibilism. It is a non-trivial condition, since it excludes
some accounts of knowledge (Dretske’s and Nozick’s). However, since most
epistemologists want to hold closure, they in fact endorse epistemic infallibilism.
(AC)
(EC)
22
            <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref14">Dretske (1970)</xref>
            ,
            <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref34">Nozick (1981)</xref>
            .
23 Drestke (1970: 1016). Dretske assumes, as we will, that Chris knows that if the animal
is a mule then it is not a zebra.
            <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref40">Schaffer (2005)</xref>
            offers a related but distinct defense of the
truth of such statements. However, Schaffer argues that knowledge is a three-place
relation between a knower and a pair of contrastive propositions (e.g. S knows that p rather
than q), and that once the implicit contrast propositions are restored sentence (4) turns
out not to be a counter-instance to closure.
24 See
            <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref21">Hawthorne (2004</xref>
            : 38-46).
          </p>
          <p>
            But it is doubtful whether epistemic infallibilism should be called “infallibilism”
at all. By all accounts, the analysis of knowledge as being just true belief
            <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref39">(Sartwell
1992)</xref>
            is a fallibilist account: a lucky guess is a true belief that could easily have been
false. But true belief does satisfy (BERO): if one has the true belief that p, then any
corresponding possiblity of error w is false, and thus one is in position to have the
true belief that w is false. (Similarly, true belief satisfies closure.) Given that, it is
striking that some take epistemic “infallibilism” to lead to skepticism. In the next
section, I will discuss some reasons what one might think so, and argue that they are
misleading.
          </p>
        </sec>
        <sec id="sec-2-2-2">
          <title>2.4 Epistemic infallibilism is neutral with respect to skepticism</title>
          <p>As Pritchard notes, epistemic infallibilism is crucial to classical skeptical arguments
such as the following:25
(8) I do not know that I am not a handless brain in a vat.</p>
          <p>(9) If I do not know that I am not a handless brain in a vat, then I do not know
that I have hands.</p>
          <p>(10) Therefore, I do not know that I have hands.</p>
          <p>Premise (9) can be derived both from epistemic infallibilism and epistemic
closure. However, Moore famously showed that premise (9) can just as well be used in
an anti-sceptical argument:
(11) I know that I have hands.</p>
          <p>(12) If I know that I have hands, then I know that I am not a handless brain in a
vat.</p>
          <p>(13) Therefore, I know that I am not a handless brain in a vat.</p>
          <p>Premise (12) is equivalent to premise (9). What they say is that knowledge that
one has hands and knowledge that one is not a handless brain in a vat go together:
either one has both, or one has none.26 But they do not tell us which way of using
the argument is the right one. And there is no way in which a sceptic can use
epistemic infallibilism in order to defend premise (8): instead, she would have either to
appeal to intuition or to put forward an independent argument.27 (As we will see in
section 4.5, such an argument can rely on other infallibility conditions.) Thus
epistemic infallibilism is neutral with respect to scepticism.</p>
          <p>Similar things can be said with respect to a slightly different formulation of the
fallibilism / infallibilism distinction. Rysiew has argued one needed to be a fallibilist
in order to avoid scepticism, and that fallibilism consisted in accepting such claims
as (14), which he calls “concessive knowledge attributions”:</p>
          <p>
            (14) Chris knows that Harry is a zebra, but it is possible for Chris that Harry is a
painted mule.
25
            <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref36">Pritchard (2005</xref>
            : 25-30).
26 Of course in some non-standards situations (e.g. if one is handless) one could know
that one is not a handless brain in a vat without knowing that one has hands. But I am
assuming a standard situation here.
27 That is pretty clear in
            <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref36">Pritchard (2005</xref>
            : 24): even though Pritchard sometimes talks as if
epistemic infallibilism was the source of sceptical intuitions, he does in fact appeal t o
considerations of subjective indistinguishability to explain why premise (8) seems
plausible.
          </p>
          <p>Rysiew claims that concessive knowledge attributions can be true even though, for
pragmatic reasons, they are infelicitous.28</p>
          <p>Now Stanley has argued that “it is possible” is naturally interpreted as epistemic
possibility and along the following lines: 29
Epistemic possibility as knowledge. “It is possible for S that p” is true iff
what S knows does not entail, in a manner that is obvious to S, not-p.</p>
          <p>A similar account can be given for epistemic readings of “might”:
Epistemic “might” as knowledge. “It might be that p” uttered by S is true
iff what S knows does not entail, in a manner that is obvious to S, not-p.</p>
          <p>Thus statements like (15) would also be concessive knowledge attributions:
(15) I know that Harry is a zebra, but it might be a painted mule.</p>
          <p>Given these understandings of “it is possible” and “might”, epistemic infallibilism
can be restated in the following ways:</p>
          <p>(16) If one knows that p, and p obviously entails q, then it is not possible for one
that q.</p>
          <p>(17) If I know that p, and p obviously entails q, then it is false that it might be
that q.</p>
          <p>Accepting (16) and (17) amounts to rejecting concessive knowledge attributions.
But as Stanley notes, that gives no weight whatsoever to sceptical arguments. If
Chris knows that Harry is a zebra, then something that Chris knows – namely, that
Harry is a zebra – obviously entails that Harry is not a painted mule. So it is not
possible for Chris that Harry is a zebra.30 So avoiding scepticism need not lead one to
accept concessive knowledge attributions, nor to reject epistemic infallibilism.31</p>
          <p>A second way in which one might think that epistemic infallibilism leads to
scepticism is that it seems to forbid inductive knowledge. Suppose one knows of the n
observed apples that they all have seeds. Then what one knows does not rule out that
the remaining apples have seeds. So it seems that epistemic infallibilism implies that
one cannot thereby know that all apples have seeds. Since a vast amount of our
putative knowledge is based on inductive evidence, infallibilism would lead to
scepticism.</p>
          <p>However, the worry is misplaced as well. Let t0 be the time just before one draws
the inductive inference, and t1 the time at which one has inferred that all apples are
seed. What epistemic infallibilism implies is just this: at t1, one knows that all
apples have seeds only if one is able to rule out any possibility in which some apple
does not have seeds. It does not imply that one should be able to rule them out at t0.
Thus epistemic infallibilism just says that if that inductive inference yields
knowl(EPK)
(EMK)
28 Rysiew (2001 : 492-494).
29 Stanley (2005 : 128).
30 Stanley (2005 : 130).
31 Dougherty and Rysiew (forthcoming) have objected to Stanley’s account of epistemic
possiblity. They defend Rysiew’s (2001) original account, according to which “it i s
possible for S that p” is true iff S’s evidence does not logically entail not-p. On that
reading, concessive knowledge attributions do not amount to a denial of epistemic
infallibilism, but to a denial of evidential infallibilism, which will be discussed in section
3.
edge, then once the inference is made one is able to rule out alternatives to the general
proposition. But it is silent on whether inductive inference yields knowledge.
3</p>
        </sec>
      </sec>
    </sec>
    <sec id="sec-3">
      <title>Evidential infallibilism</title>
      <p>Epistemic infallibilism is a consequence of epistemic closure and is thus a fairly
plausible condition on knowledge. However, it fails to deal with our original
problem, which was to say what knowledge required above true belief. That is so because
epistemic infallibility is itself formulated in terms of knowledge: very roughly, it
amounts to saying that one knows that p only if one knows that not-p is false. I will
now turn to a seemingly more promising account of infallibilism that is widely found
in the literature, which I will call evidential infallibilism. Evidential fallibilism is
rightly thought to lead to scepticism, and is widely rejected. I will reject it as well,
but I will argue that it is not a useful characterization of the infallibilist intuition
either.</p>
      <p>3.1</p>
      <sec id="sec-3-1">
        <title>The evidential-infallibility condition</title>
        <p>When infallibilism is not defined as ruling out possibilities of error, it is often
defined along the following lines: 32
One knows that p on the basis of evidence e only if e logically entails p.</p>
        <p>What does “evidence” means here? Since evidence is taken to enter in logical
relations, it has to be propositional. So even though we sometimes speak of a bloodied
knife as evidence, strictly speaking the evidence would be that the knife was
bloodied, or that there was a bloodied knife in the defendant’s car, and so on.33 Moreover,
we are talking about evidence one has, and that implies at least that the relevant
propositions are believed. Even though the fact that there is a bloodied knife in the
defendant’s car is evidence against him, it cannot be the basis of one’s knowledge that
he is guilty unless one is aware of it. So evidence is at least believed propositions.34</p>
        <p>Morever, there are good reasons to think that propositional evidence cannot be the
basis of knowledge if it is not itself known.35 Familiar Gettier cases give intuitive
support to that idea. Suppose that Denise has a justified but false belief that her
colleague Eric has a car – for instance, Erik has had a car for ages and she saw it on
many occasions, but unbeknownst to her, he just sold it. From that she infers that
someone in her office has a car. As it turns out, that is true because another colleague
has a car – but she is also unaware of that. Intuitively, even though her belief is the
logical consequence of a justifiably believed proposition, it is not knowledge. It is
just a matter of luck that she gets things right: if the other colleague had not had a
car, she would have been mistaken. By contrast, if she knew that Erik had a car (and
thus he would have one), then she could know on that basis that someone in her
office has a car. (That just follows from epistemic closure.) Thus evidence can be the
basis of one’s knowledge only if it is a proposition one knows to be true.36</p>
        <p>We can thus reformulate the infallibility condition as follows:
Evidential infallibilism. S knows p on the basis of e only if S knows e and e
logically entails p.
(EF)</p>
        <p>The basing relation is hard to define. A sufficient condition is the following: if S
has competently deduced p from e, then S’s belief that p is based (at least) on e. But
there might be subtler ways of basing, e.g. if one’s belief that e supports one belief
that p in the following sense: one would cease to believe that p if one ceased to
believe that e. However, we can focus on the inference case for the present discussion.
3 . 2 W h y e v i d e n t i a l i n f a l l i b i l i s m
characterisation of infallibilism
i s
n o t
a
satisfying</p>
        <p>Given the reformulation (EF), it is clear that evidential infallibilism cannot be a
general condition on knowledge unless it is a trivial one. That results from the
following dilemma:</p>
        <p>Either one allows p to be among one’s evidence for knowing that p, and then
evidential infallibilism is trivially true. That is so because it is always the case that if S
knows p then S knows p and p entails p.37</p>
        <p>Or one does not allow p to be among the evidence for one’s knowing that p, and
then a regress is generated that has to stop at some knowledge that does not satisfy
condition (EF). If p is not among the one’s evidence for knowing that p, then one’s
evidence consists in some further knowledge. If that further knowledge is itself based
on evidence, then it requires yet some further knowledge. And so on until we reach
items of knowledge that are not based on propositional evidence, and thus to which
condition (EF) does not apply.</p>
        <p>
          The second horn of the dilemma relies on several assumptions. First, I am
assuming that circular justification (p is known on the basis of q which is known on the
basis of p) substantially amounts to the first horn, that is allowing p to be part of
one’s evidence for p. Second, I am assuming that if the regress if infinite, knowledge
is impossible.38
36 See
          <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref50">Williamson (2000</xref>
          , sec. 9.6) for further arguments for the claim that one’s evidence
should just be one’s knowledge.
37 On such a reading, (EF) boils down to a trivial case of epistemic infallibilism, namely S
knows that p only if S knows that p.
38 See
          <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref26">Klein (1998)</xref>
          for the opposite view.
        </p>
        <p>Consequently, people who defend evidential infallibilism on the second reading
turn out to be a specific set of views: namely, the sceptics who rely on Agrippa’s
trilemma to argue that knowledge is impossible,39 and the foundationalists who take
all knowledge to be either part of a special set of beliefs that are not themselves based
on propositional evidence (call them foundational beliefs) or deduced from such
beliefs. Let us call the later view deductive foundationalism.</p>
        <p>Granted, deductive foundationalism has been an influential view. Descartes’ own
view is plausibly an instance of it: knowledge is either the intuition of some basic
truths, or deduced from such intuitions.40 Yet evidential infallibilism only
characterizes half of the view: namely, the part concerning the non-foundational beliefs.
Consequently, the denial of evidential infallibilism is itself a limited view.41 It focuses
on beliefs that are based on known evidence. So the debate does not deal with general
conditions of knowledge, but local ones.</p>
        <p>One might think that the cases under discussion are nevertheless the vast majority
of our putative knowledge. Many beliefs about empirical matters, it seems, are
inferred from non-logically conclusive evidence. For instance, I might infer that my car
is parked in front of the house on the basis of my belief that it was so five minutes
ago. In that case, my premise is consistent with the conclusion’s being false.
However, it is unclear to what extent our beliefs are so organised. As several have pointed
out, our beliefs typically fit into a redundant set of beliefs, in the sense that any
belief of the set is the logical consequence of several other beliefs in the set.42 For
instance, my beliefs that there is an apple in front of me is related to my belief that it
was there five seconds ago and did not move since, that if I looked in a mirror I
would see an apple in front of me, that somebody beside me knows that there is an
apple in front of me, and so on. It is unclear that our putative knowledge can be
neatly organised in a pyramid-like structure, and if it cannot the beliefs that belong to
redundant sets will not provide counter-instances to evidential infallibilism. As it
turns out, the cases where one can clearly identify the premises on which a belief is
based are very few.</p>
        <p>
          For those reasons, the evidential formulation of the fallibilism/infallibilism debate
is not fully satisfactory. One would like to have a characterization of the infallibilist’s
intuition that covers all putative kinds of knowledge. Yet it will be useful to discuss
the restricted set of cases on which that debate turns, so let us turn to them.
39 Agrippa’s trilemma against knowledge is the following argument : for any p , one
knows that p only if one’s belief that p is based on some further knowledge.
Consequently, either one’s chain of justifications has an arbitrary end, or it goes on infinitely,
or it is circular. In the three cases one fails to know. See
          <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref41">Sextus Empiricus (1933</xref>
          -49 : I,
95-101) and Williams
          <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref31">(1991 : §2.4 and 2001, chap. 5)</xref>
          .
40 It is not clear, however, whether Descartes’ view amounts to saying that deduction
yields knowledge only if the deduced belief is logically entailed by its basis. Descartes
only demands that it be evident that the deduced belief is true if its basis is, and that
condition might be slightly less stringent than logical entailement.
41 Since on the first horn of the dilemma evidential infallibilism is trivially true, we can
safely assume that critics of evidential infallibilism rely on the second reading.
42
          <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref50">Williamson (2000</xref>
          : 204), Reed (2002 : 146).
        </p>
      </sec>
      <sec id="sec-3-2">
        <title>3.3 Evidential infallibilism is unwarranted</title>
        <p>We have seen that evidential infallibilism is controversial on the following reading
only: 43, 44
Non-Trivial Evidential Infallibilism. One knows that p on the basis of e
(e ≠ p), only one knows e and e logically entails p.
(EF)</p>
        <p>Why one would want to accept evidential infallibilism? One can at least see three
reasons. First, the dialectical motivation: suppose one claims that p. Then one can
always be challenged with such questions as “Why do you think that p?”, “How do
you know that p?” or “What is the evidence for p?”.45 Simply restating “p” will not
satisfactorily answer the question, since by asking such questions one’s interlocutor
implies that she suspends her belief in p. Thus one has to put forward further claims
as propositional evidence for p. Yet those can be challenged if they do not logically
entail that p: the interlocutor might object something along the lines of “Well, I grant
e, but it is possible that e and not-p, so I do not see why I should believe that p”. For
instance, if one argues that all apples have seeds because all the apples one has
observed have seeds, the interlocutor might object that even though all the apples that
one has observed had seeds, it is possible that the unobserved ones do not, and thus
refuses to believe that all apples have seeds. And thus the interlocutor might
challenge the claim that one knows that all apple have seeds.</p>
        <p>
          Second, evidential infallibilism provides a simple solution to the Gettier problem.
Gettier showed that justified true belief is not sufficient for knowledge, and thus that
justification was not the (only) thing that distinguishes knowledge from true belief. 46
However, as Gettier himself noted, his counterexamples can be constructed only if
one’s justification for p is compatible with p being false. But if one’s justification is
a known proposition that entails p , it is incompatible with p being false. (If one
knows that e, then e is true, and if e entails p, then p is true as well). So evidential
infallibility is a good candidate for being the third condition on knowledge.
43 As formulated, the condition concerns only those beliefs that are based on some
propositional evidence. It is thus silent on putative foundational beliefs.
44 Recall (section 2.4) that Rysiew (2001) and Dougherty and Rysiew (forthcoming) take
fallibilism to entail the truth of concessive knowledge attributions such as “Chris
knows that it is a zebra but it is possible for him that it is a painted mule”. Dougherty
and Rysiew argue contra
          <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref44">Stanley (2005)</xref>
          that the epistemic reading of “it is possible”
should be rendered as follows: “it is possible for S that p” is true iff S’s evidence does
not entail that not-p. (By contrast, Stanley argues that “it is possible for S that p” is true
iff what S knows does not entail not-p.) Thus their fallibilism is the rejection of
nontrivial evidential fallibilism. As we will see below, I agree that non-trivial evidential
infallibilism should be rejected (and so does Stanley). However, I leave it open whether
concessive knowledge attributions should be understood as Stanley does (in which case
I would agree with him that they are false, because they amount to the rejection of
epistemic closure), or as Dougherty and Rysiew do (in which case I would agree with them
that they are true, because they amount to the rejection of non-trivial evidential
fallibilism).
45
          <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref50">Williamson (2000</xref>
          : 188).
46
          <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref18">Gettier (1963)</xref>
          .
        </p>
        <p>Third, evidential infallibilism provides a good explanation of why epistemic
closure holds. Whenever one knows p and one knows that p implies q, then what one
knows entails that q. So, according to evidential infallibilism, one would know that
q if one believed that q on the basis of one’s knowledge that p and that p implies q.</p>
        <p>However, note that the second and third points only suggest that evidential
infallibility is sufficient for knowledge. Only the dialectical motivation suggests that it is
necessary. But it is unclear that the dialectical constraints on arguments do apply to
knowledge – in fact, even evidential foundationalists will have to argue in the end
that regarding some claims (the foundational ones), the dialectical challenge is
unwarranted.</p>
        <p>Moreover, there are good reasons to think that evidential infallibility is not
necessary for knowledge as evidential infallibilism requires. First, there are our intuitions
on standard knowledge cases. Suppose one believes that there was a coin on the table
five seconds ago on the basis of one’s knowledge that there is a coin on the table
now. What one knows is consistent with the falsity of that belief. However,
intuitively, it seems possible for one to come to know that there was a coin on the table
five second ago in such a way, at least in standard situations. Evidential infallibilists
might reply that in order to come to know that, one would need to know that coins
do not spontaneously appear or something similar, but it is doubtful that one needs
to.</p>
        <p>
          Second, evidential infallibilism has devastating sceptical consequences. As
          <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref47">Vogel
(1990)</xref>
          argues, evidential infallibilism rules out the possibility that we gain
knowledge through induction. An inductive inference form e to p is an inference such that e
does not logically entail p . If the evidential infallibility condition holds, no such
inference can yield knowledge. Since a vast amount of our putative empirical
knowledge is plausibly based on such inferences, evidential infallibilism entails a
significant dose of skepticism.
        </p>
        <p>To sum up, the arguments for evidential infallibilism are not strong, and its
consequences counter-intuitive. That has lead many to reject it. I agree with them that
evidential fallibilism is a desirable feature for an account of knowledge to have.
However, I have also claimed that the evidential construal of the fallibilism / infallibilism
debate is not satisfactory because it focuses on a restricted set of putative knowledge
cases, and fails to account for the infallibilist’s general view about knowledge.
4</p>
      </sec>
    </sec>
    <sec id="sec-4">
      <title>Modal infallibilism</title>
      <p>The last kind of infallibilism that I will discuss is based on an alethic-modal
construal of possibilities of error. Roughly, the idea is that one knows only if one could
not have been wrong about p. The possibility here is an alethic modality like logical,
metaphysical or physical possibility, not an epistemic one as in closure-based
infallibilism.47 I will argue that the modal infallibility condition captures the infallibilist’s
intuition in its full generality, and that it is a requirement that any account of
knowledge should incorporate in order to solve the Gettier problem and to account for our
ignorance of lottery outcomes.
47 See section 2.4 above.</p>
      <sec id="sec-4-1">
        <title>4.1 The modal construal of possibilities of error</title>
        <p>A rough formulation of modal infallibilism is thus the following: 48
Modal infallibilism. S knows that p only if S’s belief that p could not have
been wrong.
(MI)</p>
        <p>The condition has some initial intuitive appeal. If one guesses rightly that a
flipped coin has landed on heads, one does not know that it has because it could have
landed on tails, and one’s belief would then have been wrong. However, the
formulation is too restrictive. Suppose that one has seen the coin landing on heads. Then
one’s belief could have been wrong, in the following way: one could have failed to
see it, and wrongly guessed that it landed on tails. Yet that does not prevent one from
knowing that it landed heads based on one’s seeing it. For given that one had seen it,
one’s belief about whether it landed on heads could not have been wrong. Thus the
condition should only rule out the possibility that one be wrong given one’s basis for
one’s belief:
S knows that p on the basis b only if S’s belief that p on basis b could not
have been wrong.
(MI’)</p>
        <p>
          What is the basis of a belief? The need to take into account the basis of a belief in
order to account for knowledge is widely recognized in epistemology. If one believes
that there is a coin on the table because one saw it, what is relevant to that belief’s
being knowledge is whether one’s perceptual capacities can be mistaken about coins,
not whether one’s guessing abilities can be mistaken about coins. I call bases for
belief what is elsewhere called “justification”, “evidence”,49 “methods”,50 or
“cognitive processes”.51 Bases can be an inference, a memory, a perception, and so on.52 The
48 Formulations of this kind can be found in
          <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref4">Ayer (1956</xref>
          : 54-56),
          <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref5">BonJour (1985</xref>
          : 26 and
1998 : 16),
          <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref2">Alston (1992)</xref>
          , and
          <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref28">Lehrer (1974</xref>
          : 81 and 1990: 45). See also Reed (2002:
144).
49
          <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref30">Lewis (1996)</xref>
          . What Lewis calls “evidence” is not the propositions that one knows or
believes, but the fact that one is in such-and-such cognitive state, i.e. the fact that one
has the experiences and memories one has. Thus it belongs to the same family of
notions as what are called “bases” here.
50
          <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref34">Nozick (1981)</xref>
          .
51 Goldman (1976, 1979).
52 To be slightly more precise, I take bases of belief to be events. Thus they are
nonrepeatable. If “cognitive processes” are understood as types of processes, e.g.
remembering, what I call bases are tokens or instances of cognitive processes, e.g. a given memory
episode. Formally, bases are represented by sets of worlds (coarse propositions): for
instance, b can be the set of worlds in which S had such and such memory episode at time
t. The basing relation is a causal relation: belief B is based on basis b iff event b caused
state B in the normal way. The restriction “in the normal way” is needed to set aside
nonstandard causal links between cognitive processes and beliefs, e.g. one’s cognitive
process causing a modification on an electro-encephalogram display that one sees,
which causes in turn one to have belief B.
individuation of bases is famously a vexed matter, to which I will return below.53 For
the time being, I will rely on an intuitive comprehension of the notion.
        </p>
        <p>What the condition says is the following: one knows p on basis b only if it was
not possible that p was false while S based is belief that p on b.54 The relevant notion
of possibility here is an alethic modality, not an epistemic one. The condition does
not say that one knows p only if given what one knows it is not possible that S has b
and p is false. It says that one knows p only if in fact it was not possible that S had
b and p was false. Now, alethic modalities come in different species: logical
possibility, metaphysical possibility, physical possibility, and so on. Our present
characterization of modal infallibilism is neutral with respect to those. As we will see in the
next section, that is in fact a welcomed feature.</p>
        <p>Necessarily true propositions raise difficulties for (MI’). If I luckily guess that a
five-digit number is a prime, my belief that it is a prime on the basis of guess could
not have been false, simply because that number could not have failed to be prime.
Yet we do not want to say that I could not have been wrong, nor that I know. One
way to account for that is the following: on the same basis (guess), I could have come
up with another belief (that it is not prime) which would have been mistaken. That is
why I could have been wrong. Accordingly, the infallibility condition should be
reformulated as follows:
S knows that p on the basis b only if S could not have had a wrong belief
about whether p on basis b.
(MI’’)</p>
        <p>But there are reasons to suspect that (MI’’) will not do either. Suppose that I
decided whether the number is prime on the basis of some systematic but absurd
mathematical method (for instance, adding its digits and assuming that it is prime iff
the sum of its digits is). Then the only belief I could have come up with on that basis
about that particular number is the one I do have now, namely that it is prime, and
that belief could not have been false. However, intuitively I could have been wrong
because it is just a matter of luck that my method gave the right result about that
number, for it gives wrong results about most other numbers. So it not sufficient to
look whether the basis would have yielded a true belief about p. One should also look
whether the basis would have yielded true beliefs with respect to q, r, …, where the
latter are matters close to p. That is not easily done, and I will simply leave the case
of necessarily true propositions aside here.55</p>
      </sec>
      <sec id="sec-4-2">
        <title>4.3 Modal infallibilism captures the core infallibilist intuition</title>
        <p>
          By contrast with evidential infallibilism, which is restricted to cases where one
knows on the basis of propositional evidence (section 3.2), modal infallibilism is a
53 See
          <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref19">Goldman (1976)</xref>
          ,
          <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref34">Nozick (1981)</xref>
          for different attempts.
          <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref11">Conee and Feldman (1998)</xref>
          and
          <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref50">Williamson (2000</xref>
          , sec. 7.4) argue that the problem is intractable. I return to the
issue in section 4.4.
54 In possible worlds terms : look at all possible worlds in which S has the same basis for
his belief that p ; if in any of these worlds, p is false, then S does not know that p.
55 A more straightforward solution would be to allow oneself to impossible worlds and
maintain (MI’) as it is. But since that would require a non-standard semantics for alethic
modality, I will not pursue that option here.
general condition on knowledge.56 I will now argue that modal infallibilism captures
the core infallibilist intuition. I will do so on two grounds: first, the hypothesis that
Descartes endorsed modal infallibilism provides a fairly good account of his
epistemology, which is the prototypical infallibilist position. Second, modal infallibilism
explains how one would expect infallibilists to endorse evidential infallibilism.
        </p>
        <p>The prototypical infallibilist position, namely Descartes’, can be derived from
modal infallibilism and a few assumptions. The crucial assumption is to take possibility
to be metaphysical possibility: it is possible that p iff not-p is not a metaphysical
truth. Now there are three kinds of knowledge in Descartes’ view: (a) intuitive
knowledge that I think, and that I exist, (b) intuitive knowledge of some metaphysical
principles, such as that causes have at least as much reality as their effects,
(c) knowledge deduced from other knowledge. Moreover, (d) beliefs that are merely
based on perception are not knowledge. As we saw (section 3.2), Descartes’
acceptance of evidential infallibilism would account for (c), and possibly for (d) if
Descartes assumed that perceptual beliefs are based on propositional evidence, which is
doubtful. By contrast, modal infallibilism accounts for all of (a) - (d). Why does
Descartes take his own belief that he exists to be knowledge? A plausible answer is
that he does so because such a belief could not fail to be true. In whatever situation in
which I have the belief that I exist, that belief is true. So beliefs of type (a) satisfy the
modal infallibility condition. Furthermore, beliefs of type (c) count as knowledge if
epistemic closure holds. But as we will see in section (4.4), epistemic closure is a
plausible consequence of modal infallibilism. So Descartes’ acceptance of modal
infallibilism would also explain (c).</p>
        <p>Turning to (b), why does Descartes takes the intuition of metaphysical principles
to be knowledge? If he was relying on evidential infallibilism, he would take himself
to deduce them from further principles, but he clearly does not so. Instead he insists
on the fact that one cannot doubt such principles as soon as one conceives them
clearly and distinctly. But many have been puzzled why Descartes takes a purely
psychological fact (clear and distinct perception) to yield knowledge. Modal
infallibilism provides an explanation of why that could be so. Let p be one of the
metaphysical principles. Descartes’ view seems to be that (1) when one forms a belief
about whether p on the basis of clear and distinct perception, one could not but form
the belief that p is true, (2) since p is a metaphysical truth, it is impossible that p is
false. From (1) and (2) it follows that (3) whenever one forms a belief about whether
p on the basis of clear and distinct perception that p , one’s belief is true. So one
satisfies the modal infallibility condition with respect to p. What the psychological
condition (clear and distinct perception) does is just to ensure that one could not have
come up with the belief that not-p. By contrast, if one’s belief that p was based on a
guess, one could have made the opposite guess, and one would then have been
wrong.57</p>
        <p>Finally, modal infallibilism explains (d). Why does Descartes say that his
experience does not allow him not know that he is not dreaming or deceived by an evil
demon? It is metaphysically possible that Descartes has the experience he has and that
56 That is true only on the assumption that all beliefs have some basis. But the
assumption is unproblematic. If there are cases where a belief just pops into existence, we will
say that that belief is its own basis.
57 On the present view, Descartes would rely on something like (MI’’) to characterize the
fallibility of some beliefs in necessary truths. See section (4.2).
he is dreaming. Thus, if modal infallibilism holds, Descartes does not know that he
is not dreaming on the basis of his experience.</p>
        <p>One might object two things to that account of Descartes’ position. First,
Descartes does not think it metaphysically possible that he is deceived by an evil demon.
He precisely argues that God’s benevolence makes it impossible (Med. First Phil.,
IV). Second, if the foregoing account of knowledge of metaphysical principles was
right, Descartes would never refuse to count clear and distinct mathematical beliefs as
knowledge – but he does (Med. First Phil., I) .</p>
        <p>The second objection does not goes through, because Descartes does not think it
metaphysically impossible that true mathematical propositions are false. He refrains
from saying that God could not have created different mathematical facts.58</p>
        <p>The first objection can be answered in several ways. One is to move the whole
discussion one order up: Descartes’ position at the beginning of the Meditations would
not be that he does not know that he is not deceived, but that he does not know that
he knows that he is not deceived. Similarly, Descartes claims that an atheist
mathematician has “cognitio” but not “scientia” of mathematical truths, where scientia
seems to imply that one knows that one knows.59 Another reply is to rely on the
psychological mechanism of doubt: before he bases his belief that he is not deceived
on the proof of the existence of God, Descartes’s is liable to doubt whether he is
deceived. Because of that, it was just as well possible that he formed the belief that
he is deceived. And that belief would be wrong, assuming such deception is
metaphysically impossible. So the experience-based belief that one is not dreaming is
metaphysically fallible, even though it is metaphysically impossible that one is
deceived.60</p>
        <p>
          The second reason to think that modal infallibilism captures the core infallibilist
intuition is that it explains why some infallibilists would endorse evidential
infallibilism. The explanation is simply this: if the possibility in the modal infallibility
condition is understood as logical possibility, then evidential infallibilism follow. It
is pretty straightforward to see that. Suppose one’s basis for q is one’s knowledge
that p, but that p does not logically entails q . Then typically it will be logically
possible that one has that basis and q is false.61 So the logical version of modal
infal58 See Med. First Phil., 5th and 6th replies.
59 See
          <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref13">DeRose (1992)</xref>
          .
60 A third objection would be that Descartes’ metaphysical infallibilism would license a
more permissive closure principle than deductive closure. And thus Descartes’ alleged
acceptance of metaphysical infallibilism would fail to explain why Descartes thinks that
only deductive inferences yield knowledge. But as I said earlier (note 40), it is not clear
whether Descartes’ notion of “deduction” is restricted to logically valid inferences. And
even if we assume that it is, it is plausible that Descartes does not clearly distinguish
logical from metaphysical possibility. After all, the distinction was unclear until
Kripke’s work, and as far as I know Leibniz was the first to point it out. So it would n o t
be a surprise if Descartes relied on metaphysical possibilities in his account of
intuition, and logical ones in his account of deduction.
61 There are exceptions. For instance, let q be “S knows that p”. Then if S’s knowing that p
is the basis for S’s belief that S knows that p, it is logically impossible that S has that
basis while S does not know that p. That kind of case cannot be blocked by saying that
the basis should be a belief, and not knowledge, because (since by assumption one
knows that p) the belief will have an infallible basis, and it will typically be the case
libilism implies that ones does know p. Conversely, one knows p on the basis of
evidence e only if e entails p. Thus evidential infallibilism follows from modal
infallibilism and the logical conception of possibility.62
        </p>
        <p>To sum up, Descartes’ view can be seen as an instance of modal infallibilism
where possibility is understood as metaphysical possibility, and evidential
infallibilism can be seen as an instance of modal infallibilism where possibility is
understood as logical possibility. So modal infallibilism turns out to be the most general
account of infallibilism, and arguably captures the core infallibilist idea.</p>
      </sec>
      <sec id="sec-4-3">
        <title>4.4 Two arguments for modal infallibilism</title>
        <p>Now why would one subscribe to the core infallibilist idea? There are two main
arguments for it: first, it is needed to solve the Gettier problem, and second, it provides
an account of lottery cases.</p>
        <p>The first argument is the following: if our account of knowledge rejects modal
infallibilism, then a Gettier case can be built against that account. Conversly, if no
Gettier case can be built, then our account includes modal infallibilism. The argument
does not show that modal infallibilism is sufficient to prevent Gettier cases, but it
shows that it is necessary, and that is enough to show that if one thinks that Gettier
subjects lack knowledge, one has to accept modal infallibilism.63</p>
        <p>As is often noted, Gettier cases consist in a double luck situation.64 S has a
justification, or basis, that makes it very likely but not necessary that p is true. But the
situation is just one in which one’s basis would normally yield a false belief – that is
the “bad luck” part. However, p turns out to be true in a manner unconnected to one’s
justification – that is the “good luck” part. For instance, one has a fairly reliable
capacity to recognize sheeps, but one happens to be looking at a sheep-shaped rock in
the distance – that is the “bad luck” part; in that situation one would normally acquire
the false belief that there is a sheep there. However, there happens to be a sheep
hidden behind the rock, and thus one’s belief that there is a sheep there is true – that is
the “good luck” part. It is thus a matter of luck that one’s belief is true, and one does
not know.</p>
        <p>
          that one’s having that basis is not only incompatible with p being false, but also with
one not knowing that p. So the infallible basis for one’s first order belief that p will
typically be also an infallible basis for one’s second-order belief that one knows that p.
However, such cases are limited and can be left aside here. (Note in passing that the
foregoing argument shows that modal infallibilism explains the intuitive appeal for the KK
principle: if the basis of one’s second-order belief that one knows p is the same as that
of one’s belief that p, then it will typically (but not always) be the case that that basis
makes it necessary that one knows that p, and consequently the second-order belief will
satisfy the infallibility condition as well.)
62 Reed (2002 : 145) says that (what is here called) modal infallibilism is equivalent t o
(what is here called) evidential infallibilism. But crucially, he fails to notice this is s o
only if possibility is understood as logical possibility.
63 By contrast, if one thinks that true belief is knowledge
          <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref39">(Sartwell 1992)</xref>
          or that justified
true belief is knowledge, then one does not have to accept modal infallibilism.
64 Zagzebski (1994, 1999),
          <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref36">Pritchard (2005</xref>
          : 149).
        </p>
        <p>Now it is easily seen why rejecting modal infallibility exposes one to Gettier
cases. Suppose it is argued that S has knowledge but that the basis of S’s belief is
fallible. Thus there are possible situations in which S has the same basis but her
belief is false. Take one such situation, and make it so that the belief is true in a
manner unconnectedd to S’s basis. The resulting situation is one in which S satisfies
all the conditions of the original account, and yet S does not have knowledge because
it is just a matter of luck that her belief is true. The sheep case illustrates how the
construction goes.</p>
        <p>It might be objected that it is not guaranteed that in each case it will be possible to
make it so that the belief is true in a manner unrelated to S’s basis. But typically, a
candidate fallible condition (for instance that one’s belief has a subjective probability
of .9 or more given what one knows) will provide a vast number of cases in which
one has a false belief whose basis satisfy the fallibility condition, and it would be
surprising if none of these is such that it can be made so that the belief is true in a
manner unconnected to S’s basis. At any rate no such analysis has been provided so
far.65</p>
        <p>The bottom line is this: if one argues that in some cases S knows p even though it
was possible that S believed that p on that basis while p was false, then one’s
analysis of knowledge will classify some Gettier cases as knowledge.66</p>
        <p>
          The second argument for modal infallibilism is that it accounts for lottery cases.
As Kyburg first noted, we have the intuition that one cannot know that one will loose
a lottery, no matter high the odds are and even though one will in fact loose.67 If
there is an objective chance that one’s ticket will be drawn, then intuitively one
cannot know that one will loose, however slight the chance is. As Hawthorne notes,
lottery cases are instances of a more general principle:68
(18) If there is an objective chance that p, then one does not know that not-p.
Conversely:
(19) If one knows that not-p, there is no objective chance that p.
65 In order to block the above recipe for Gettier cases, a candidate fallible basis would
have to have the following feature: whenever the situation is such that the fallible basis
would normally yield false beliefs, it necessarily yields false beliefs. Such a fallible
basis would thus have the surprising feature of counter-infallibility: when it is in default,
it infallibly yields false beliefs. It would be most surprising to find a plausible fallible
condition for knowledge with that feature.
66 Howard-Synder,
          <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref23">Howard-Snyder and Feit (2003</xref>
          ) argue that something slightly less that
infallibility is required to solve the Gettier problem : in substance, that one’s belief i s
such that if true, it is infallibly true. While their condition allows them to classify as
warranted some false beliefs, it makes no difference in cases of knowledge, since in the
latter one’s belief is true. So their view entails modal infallibilism.
67
          <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref27">Kyburg (1961)</xref>
          . More precisely, Kyburg noted that if a subjective probability of less
than 1 was sufficient for rational acceptance, then one would be lead to rationally accept
a contradiction, namely that nobody will win the lottery (since for each player the
probability that he looses is close to 1), and that somebody will (since there is a winning
ticket). See
          <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref21">Hawthorne (2004</xref>
          : 1) for further references on the lottery paradox.
68
          <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref21">Hawthorne (2004</xref>
          : 93). More precisely, lotteries where the draw has not taken place yet
are instances of that principle – assuming the drawing process is genuinely
indeterministic. I will return to that point shortly.
        </p>
        <p>Principle (19) is very intuitive.69 Modal infallibilism provides a straightforward
explanation of it: according to infallibilism, if one knows p, then one has a basis for
one’s belief that p such that one’s having that basis makes it necessary that p. Hence
the objective chance of not-p being the case is zero.</p>
        <p>Given that arguably, only future events (if any) are objectively chancy, the
argument provides support only for modal infallibilism concerning knowledge of future
events. However, there is a prima facie reason to treat knowledge of the past in a
parallel fashion. Suppose that the lottery has been drawn, but that one has not been
told its outcome. Then the chance that one wins is 0 or 1, depending on the outcome.
However, the objective conditional probability that one won given that one had ticket
k is 1/n, where n is the total number of tickets. Intuitively, we want to treat that case
just as if the draw had not taken place: that is, we would want to say that one does
not know because one’s belief that one lost could be wrong. That is precisely what
modal infallibilism gives us: if the objective conditional probability that one won
given one’s basis for belief is above 0, then it was possible that one had that basis
and one lost, and thus, by modal infallibilism, one does not know. That suggests the
following generalisation of (18):
The Chance-Knowledge Principle. One knows that p on basis b only if the
objective conditional probability that one’s belief is true conditional on
one’s having basis b is 1.</p>
        <p>Assuming that the conditional probability of p given q is zero iff it was not
possible that p and q, the Chance-Knowledge Principle is equivalent to modal
infallibilism. Thus one who is willing to explain lottery ignorance by the
ChanceKnowledge principle is thereby committed to modal infallibilism.70</p>
        <p>A further reason to accept modal infallibilism is that it provides a justification of
epistemic closure. Suppose that one knows that p and that p implies q . By modal
infallibilism, one’s bases for these two beliefs are such that it is not possible that one
has them without q being true. Consequently, if they also are the basis for one’s
belief that q, then one’s belief that q satisfies the modal infallibility condition too. If,
as seems plausible, one’s having an modally infallible basis for q is sufficient for
one’s being in position to know q, that gives us an explanation of why one is then in
position to know that q.</p>
      </sec>
      <sec id="sec-4-4">
        <title>4.4 Does modal infallibilism lead to scepticism?</title>
        <p>
          The main reason to reject the modal infallibility condition is that it seems to lead to
scepticism. In fact, some sceptical arguments can be built on the condition. But as I
will argue, whether they go through depends on one’s account of possibility.
69
          <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref21">Hawthorne (2004</xref>
          : 91-93) shows that (19) can be derived from two intuitive
principles : Lewis’ principle according to which if one knows that the objective chance of p i s
k, then one should assign an epistemic probability of k to p, and what has been called
here epistemic infallibilism.
70 Hawthorne and Lasonen (forthcoming) provide further arguments in favour of the
Objective Chance-Knowledge principle by showing that attempts to avoid the principle
have problematic consequences.
        </p>
        <p>As we have seen (section 2.4), closure-based sceptical arguments lead to a standoff
between Mooreans and sceptics, unless sceptics provide an independent reason to
think that ones does not know that (for instance) one is not a brain in vat. Now
modal infallibilism allows one to build such an argument. Let b be one’s basis for one’s
belief that one is not a brain in a vat:
(20) It was possible that one had been a handless brain in vat.</p>
        <p>(21) If one had been a handless brain in vat, one could have had b and yet one’s
belief that one is not one would have been false.</p>
        <p>(22) By (20) and (21), one could have had a false belief on basis b.</p>
        <p>(23) By modal infallibilism, one does not know that one is not a handless brain in
a vat.71</p>
        <p>The argument is valid. One can avoid the conclusion only by rejecting at least
modal infallibilism or one of (20)-(21). But whether (20) and (21) hold crucially
depends on two things: how possibility is understood and how bases for beliefs are
individuated.</p>
        <p>On some understandings of possibility and some individuations of bases for
beliefs, (20) and (21) come out true. For instance, if one’s basis for one belief is
internal in the sense that one could have it however the rest of the world is, then (21) will
come out true for any proposition about the external world. And if possibility is
logical possibility, (20) comes out true. (It will plausibly do so with metaphysical
possibility as well.) That seems to be the motivation behind many sceptical
arguments and intuitions about our knowledge of the external world, notably Cartesian
scepticism.</p>
        <p>
          Externalists about mental content and disjunctivists will typically object to
premisse (21). Externalists about mental content argue that beliefs are dependent on
one’s causal relations with the world, such that one could not have one’s actual belief
if one was, for instance, a brain in a vat.72 Disjunctivists argue that perceptual
experiences are similarly world-involving, so that for instance one could not have had the
experience one has in seeing a tree had that tree not existed.73 I cannot do justice to
their arguments here. Let me just point out that using externally-individuated mental
states as bases for belief in the infallibility condition leads to wrong predictions in
simple cases. Suppose two coins A and B are perceptually indistinguishable. Coin A
has been shown to Harry, then it was put in a box with coin B, and then a coin was
randomly drawn out of the box and shown to Harry. Suppose coin A was in fact
drawn. Then Harry’s having an A-involving perceptual experience makes it necessary
that the coin Harry now sees is coin A. So the infallibility condition would be
satisfied. Yet intuitively, Harry could be wrong about the coin being coin A, and he
cannot know that it is coin A. However, that does not mean that modal infallibilists
71
          <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref7">Brueckner (2005)</xref>
          offers essentially the same reconstruction of infallibilism-based
sceptical arguments. He argues that sceptics rely on a “entailment principle” which i s
closely related to what is here called “modal infallibilism”. However, he claims that the
“entailment principle” is not warranted, while we have seen that there are powerful
reasons to accept modal infallibilism. But, as I argue in the present section, it remains to be
seen whether modal infallibilism warrants the strong infallibility condition that i s
equivalent to the entailement principle (in which case scepticism follows) or some
weaker infallibility condition (it which case it does not).
72 See
          <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref37">Putnam (1981)</xref>
          .
73 See
          <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref43">Snowdon (1980)</xref>
          .
should reject disjunctivism. They can say that Harry’s basis is the acquiring an
(object-involving) experience of the coin, whichever it is. But then that revised basis is
fallible with respect to coin A, and the analogue of (21) comes out true. So it is
doubtful that externalism or disjunctivism warrant the rejection of (21).
        </p>
        <p>Another type of objection to (21) comes from those who individuate bases for
beliefs externally without thereby individuating mental states externally. For instance,
one’s basis for one’s belief that it is 2pm could be described as one’s reading 2pm on
a well-functioning watch. Then even though one could have been misled by a broken
watch, that possibility does not impugn one’s knowledge because one’s basis for
one’s belief would then be different. Thus the analogue of (21) would be false. In the
brain-in-vat case, it could similarly be said that one’s basis for belief is one’s having
the perceptual faculties of a normal human being. However, these kind of solutions
typically run into trouble with so-called fake barn cases. Suppose Ian is driving
through an area where unbeknownst to him barn facades have been erected for a movie
set. Ian points to one of the buildings and says to his son that it is a barn – and in
fact it is one. Now if we are allowed to describe Ian’s basis as perceiving a normal
barn, we will wrongly classify his belief as infallible. It is unclear whether one can
deal with such cases without giving up the external individuation of bases.</p>
        <p>Let me turn to (20). Whatever one says about (21), it is crucial to the sceptical
argument that one accepts (20), namely that it could in fact have been the case that
some sceptical scenario (such as one’s being a brain in vat) obtained. But it is unclear
whether it is so. It might be in fact physically impossible that there be brains in vats.
For instance, there might no possible history of our universe that leads to a scientist
stimulating a brain in a vat in a way that is remotely similar to the one in which a
real brain is. If that is so, will one insist that it is possible, because it is
metaphysically or logically possible? Moreover, there are even more restrained notions of alethic
possibility. For instance, it is intuitively true that one cannot move one thousand
kilometres away from where one is in ten minutes. This is true because given the
present state of human technology, that is impossible, even though that is physically
possible. Given that, it is impossible that one’s belief that one will not be one
thousand kilometres away in ten minutes cannot be wrong. Furthermore, it is not even
clear that everything that is physically possible given the present conditions should
be treated as possible. Contemporary physics ascribes extremely small but non-null
chances to such events as a falling apple stopping in mid-air. We might want to say
that such virtually impossible events have no “real” chance of taking place. And if
that notion is the relevant one, massive physical indeterminism combined with modal
infallibilism will not be as threatening for our knowledge of the future as it seems at
first sight. Inversely, the relevant notion of possibility might also be more liberal that
physical possibility: for instance, even if the world turned out to be deterministic, we
might still want to say that a flipped coin that landed on heads could easily have
landed on tails, because a slight difference in the initial conditions would have made
it so.74</p>
        <p>
          To sum up: if sceptics are right to claim that we could have been brain in vats, and
if that is the notion of possibility relevant to the modal infallibility condition, then
we should concede that scepticism is true. But my point here is that that depends on
74 See
          <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref50">Williamson (2000</xref>
          : 123). More generally, one could rely on the conception of
chance used in statistical mechanics, which is compatible with determinism
          <xref ref-type="bibr" rid="ref1">(see Albert,
2000)</xref>
          .
substantial questions about the metaphysics of possibility and the semantics of
modals that require more careful examination. Several situations might arise. A) sceptics
are right to claim that we could have been in a sceptical scenario, and scepticism is
true; B) sceptical scenarios are in fact impossible, and we know that they do not
obtain; C) it is impossible for us to know whether sceptical scenarios are possible,
and thus if B) is true then we know but cannot know that we do; D) statements of
possibility might be context-sensitive, so that it is true in certain contexts to say that
sceptical scenarios are possible, but false in others – and consequently ascriptions of
knowledge will be context-sensitive as well.
        </p>
        <p>The same questions arise for more mundane sceptical hypotheses. Take the painted
mule case. Chris is looking at a zebra in a pen. Could it have been the case that that
zoo had a painted mule here that Chris would not distinguish from a zebra? It is not
obvious to me that the answer is “yes”. The zoo authorities might be such that they
could never had accepted to do that. It might have been impossible to get a mule, or
to put a mule there without it being quickly noticed, and so on. Or it might be that
the affirmative answer is true in some conversational contexts, but false in others.
Before those issues are settled, it is not clear that modal infallibilists will have to
deny that Chris knows that there is a zebra in the pen, or that that ascription in false
in ordinary contexts.</p>
        <p>The moral of the infallibility-based sceptical argument is thus the following: while
Descartes is right to assume that knowledge requires that one’s belief could not have
been wrong, the sceptical consequences he initially draws might go wrong in two
ways: first, he might be wrong to assume that the bases our beliefs are internally
individuated phenomenal states, and second, he might be wrong to assume that every
metaphysical possibility is a genuine possibility.
5</p>
      </sec>
    </sec>
    <sec id="sec-5">
      <title>Conclusion</title>
      <p>I have distinguished three notions of infallibilism that can be found in the
literature. The first, epistemic infallibilism, is just a consequence of the highly intuitive
principle of epistemic closure, and it should not properly be called “infallibilism”,
since it is compatible with such fallibilist accounts of knowledge as the one according
to which knowledge is just true belief. The second, evidential infallibilism, is the
requirement that one’s inferential knowledge be deductively based on known
evidence. I agree with most contemporary epistemologists that it should be rejected.
However, it is an unsatisfactory account of the infallibilist intuition. The third, modal
infallibilism, is the idea that knows only if one could not have been wrong. Modal
infallibilism captures the core infallibilist intuition, allowing us to derive Descartes’
infallibilism and evidential infallibilism under some (controversial) assumptions. I
have argued that modal infallibilism should be accepted in order to solve the Gettier
problem and to account for our ignorance in lottery cases. Unfortunately, modal
infallibilism is also a source of sceptical arguments. However, I have argued that whether
these arguments are sound depends on substantial questions about the metaphysics of
possibility and semantics of alethic modals. But whatever the upshot of these latter
issues turn out to be, modal infallibilism is a constraint with which we will have to
live.</p>
    </sec>
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